Each cadidate uses part of Kerry's statement. The full quote is:
KERRY: The president always has the right, and always has had the right, for preemptive strike. That was a great doctrine throughout the Cold War. And it was always one of the things we argued about with respect to arms control.
No president, though all of American history, has ever ceded, and nor would I, the right to preempt in any way necessary to protect the United States of America.
But if and when you do it, Jim, you have to do it in a way that passes the test, that passes the global test where your countrymen, your people understand fully why you‘re doing what you‘re doing and you can prove to the world that you did it for legitimate reasons.
To simplify: It's not enough that the President justifies preemptive actions to the American people, he also has to justify them to the rest of the world.
This sounds reasonable but what would it mean in practice? Kerry gives this example:
I mean, we can remember when President Kennedy in the Cuban missile crisis sent his secretary of state to Paris to meet with DeGaulle. And in the middle of the discussion, to tell them about the missiles in Cuba, he said, “Here, let me show you the photos.” And DeGaulle waved them off and said, “No, no, no, no. The word of the president of the United States is good enough for me.
But this is meaningless here. Bush went to the UN and made his case, pointing out how many UN resolutions Saddam had already broken. This was shortly after Afghanistan when the world was still supposed to be with us.
The world has changed since the 1960s. DeGaulle is no longer alive and rather than being grateful to the US, France now sees itself as our main rival for international influence.
So Kerry seems to be saying that he would not have made a preemptive strike until he got a UN resolution which France was blocking. Isn't that the global test he referred to?
Naturally, Kerry only used the first part, not the whole statement.
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